Many people complain that sciences like psychology have not been as successful as sciences like physics. At the same time, many also believe that all other sciences are reducible to physics. If we have a successful theory of physics, does that imply that there must be a successful theory of psychology, and indeed any other area of empirical inquiry?

Please see Allen Stairs' excellent response to a similar question here: http://askphilosophers.org/question/25732

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