I know that Kant's moral philosophy is to be considered "intentional" since he

I know that Kant's moral philosophy is to be considered "intentional" since he

I know that Kant's moral philosophy is to be considered "intentional" since he focuses on intentions and not on the action itself, each of us should act "according to that maxim whose universality as a law you can at the same time will". I was told that Kant didn't agreed the foundation of the concept of Good/Evil that past philosophers did; the reason was that they based their moral on an external thing (like ethical relativism or utilitarianism). Moral is for Kant universal and form a priori in the figure of the Moral Law. If I test my intention/action with the Moral Law, couldn't I be considered as looking for a universal order and so for a kind of usefulness?

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