My question will be introduced at the end of this post. I have thought on this

My question will be introduced at the end of this post. I have thought on this

My question will be introduced at the end of this post. I have thought on this question for some time now. But first off let me say that I do not know all there is to know about the theory of Solipsism. From what I gather, the definition can be summed up in the phrase: The theory that only the self exists, or can be proved to exist. Holding this to be true, person A kills himself. Moments before doing so, he scribbles down on a sheet of paper: If You can read this when I am dead, the theory of Solipsism is false. This seems to be a great way to find out if the theory of Solipsism is true or not, but I have come up with a counter: Person B discovers person A's body and the note. If Person A kills himself, having written down what he did, then he would have only been acting in person B's perception of the world; hence, the theory of Solipsism would be true to person B, because person B can still only be sure of his own existence- and cannot be sure that person A ever did exist. This brings up yet another oddity: Although this scenario would infer that the theory of Solipsism is true to person B, would that not also infer the theory of Solipsism to be false to person A- even though he is now dead? If I am person A, I am 100% sure of my existence- the theory of Solipsism is true to me, because I can only be sure of my own existence. If I kill myself, and person B is still around to read my note, than to person B the theory of Solipsism is still true, because he cannot be sure that I ever existed, the way I was sure of it before I offed myself; but to person A the theory is false- right? Can a philosopher please afford an opinion on this for me? Am I just thinking incoherently, or do my thoughts amount to anything?

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