Is one ever morally justified to beat someone up for making sexist and/or misogynist comments (this is a serious question)?

If a person chooses to drink alcohol in order to become more violent, should philosophers/society blame alcohol as "the evil substance," the drinker himself for not understanding the meaning of life, or society for not helping the person overcome alcohol consumption the first place?

Are ad hominem attacks or character assassinations legitimate forms of Aristotelian virtue arguments to criticize political opinions so long as all claims are entirely factual?

What do we mean when we say that someone is "ideological"? How does having an ideology differ from simply having a particular set of moral or political views?

Is it wrong to fantasize about sex with children? If a pedophile never acts on their fantasies are they still guilty of having evil thoughts, assuming that their abstinence comes out of a genuine desire not to do harm?

Suppose you have been in a relationship with your partner for several years (no marriage, no children). Even though you still have strong emotional feelings for your partner (to the extent that you would claim to love her/him), you are no longer sexually attracted for him/her. While your partner can do without the physical aspects of your relationship, you feel to miss out on something important in your life. Is it selfish to end the relationship, even though the breakup would be very hard for your partner and you don't want to hurt him/her? In other words: Is it immoral to choose sexual desires over friendship and mutual love?

Would it be ethical for a doctor to change his last name to a Jewish sounding name in order to attract more patients?

If I knew I could get a billion dollars and all I needed to do was enter a persons home and smash their tv then I would do it. Does that make me immoral?

I recently heard someone make an argument, something like- "if you accept that there is morality in sex, for example that a father having sex with his daughter is wrong, you can't say gay sex isn't immoral because people should be able to do whatever they want because it causes no harm to others" Is this argument or proof begging the question? Philosophically, what is wrong with this argument.

I used to always give money to the homeless who asked for it on the side of the road. One day a relative pointed out to me that nearly every time I give to one of the homeless, I or my family gets something beneficial in return at a later time. It's definitely possible it's all coincidence or confirmation bias, but my question is should I keep giving to them with this knowledge? Or should I not due to the fact that I involuntarily expect something in return now, defeating the purpose of the generosity? Thanks.