Was I morally correct in asking my (now) ex-wife to delay the divorce which she had initiated, in order to retain her much needed health insurance under my employer, until she had obtained such on her own? Or was she correct in her assertion that it would have been morally incorrect for her remain married to me, regardless of her health needs, due to the example shown to our children when she was meeting and dating others?

Under Federal Law (COBRA), companies with 20 or more employees arerequired to offer health care coverage at the group rate to formerspouses of employees for three years after a divorce. In somestates, companies with fewer employees are required to do the same. So,while it would be less expensive for your former wife to have been covered as a spouseunder your family plan, it’s probably just a mistake to believe thatyour former wife will not have health insurance coverage unless shedelays the divorce. Butsuch an observation doesn’t really touch the deep and complex issuesthat your and your former wife’s arguments raise about the nature andvalue of marriage. Let’s imagine that there were no such federallaw guaranteeing a three-year continuation of health insurance coveragefor former spouses. If you stayed married for the sake of providingyour wife health insurance coverage, wouldn’t you be doing somethingdishonest? Wouldn’t you be pretending, for the purpose of defrauding ahealth insurance company,...

Suppose I have a friend who keeps a stack $100 bills under her bed. For some strange reason she does not ever wish to spend the money; she just plans on letting it sit there. What's more surprising is the fact that she never counts it. So she would never know some went missing. Am I justified in taking a bit of the cash to, say, buy her flowers? She would be pleased to receive the gift, I'm sure; at the same time she would not have the slightest idea that the money use to pay for it was her own. So as far as she can tell she only benefits, meaning I'd be doing here favor. Yet, isn't it obviously cruel of me to even consider duping her like that? What is going on here?

Initially, the case that you are considering strikes me as an instanceof a moral principle to which I am generally committed, which might beput crudely, as “no harm, no foul.” If no one is harmed by, say,dancing, then moral prohibitions against it are unjustifiable. If noone would be harmed by your buying your friend flowers with her ownmoney, then it follows from this principle that there are no groundsfor moral complaint against your doing so. However, I am not yet convinced that your actions would cause no harm in this situation. I wouldn’t say that it is “obviouslycruel” for you to dupe her. I would reserve the word “cruel” for peoplewho are completely indifferent to, or even take pleasure in, thesuffering of others, and your stealing her money in order to buy herflowers doesn’t reveal such a character trait. Nonetheless, it is notso clear to me that you do not harm your friend by buying her flowerswith money that you steal from her and by pretending that the moneythat you spent was yours. The...

Consider the following scenario: an acquaintance I personally do not particularly enjoy talking to is learning French and asks me for a favour, namely to chat with them an hour per week in French, my mother tongue. Would it be morally good to do them the favour, even if it would just be out of duty? Or another scenario: my mum wants me to visit her for Christmas, but I wish not to, just as much as she wants me to go. Should I go out of duty? According to Kant, good actions must be motivated by a sense of duty, as opposed to inclination. But shouldn't it be just the other way round, at least if the action is about doing another person a favour? It almost seems immoral to do somebody a favour only because of duty.

I wonder whether there isn’t a bit more to your worry that there issomething immoral involved if you were to visit your mother despite thefact that you really didn’t want to or if you were to give free Frenchlessons to an acquaintance whose company you didn’t enjoy. To explore this idea, I’d like to step back and focus on a presupposition behind your question– namely, that you do have a moral duty to your unpleasant acquaintance to talk French to himfor an hour each week and that you do have a moral duty to visit yourmother despite your disinclination to do so. Do you really have theseduties? Surely you don’t have a general duty to speak French for anhour a week to just anyone who asks for the favor, and surely you don’thave a duty to visit for the holidays just anyone who wants you to. Sowhy should an acquaintance or your mother have any special claims onyour time, company, and conversation? Let’s begin with yourmother. Like most mothers, I’ll assume, she’s done a lot for you. Sheprovided...

I've been reading some encyclopedia articles on utilitarianism. As far as I can see, utilitarians have moved from (the defence of) the pursuit of happiness to the pursuit of preference satisfaction. A preference is satisfied, I suppose, when someone gets what she or he wants. Now, I think it's reasonable that we ought to try to make people happy, at least in most cases, but I don't think it as reasonable that we ought to try to give people what they want. And anyway, I think that these are two very different ethical theories. Should we call both "utilitarianism"?

All Utilitarians share the view that we ought to assess the morality of actions in terms of how they affect the well-being of those whom they affect. They often differ in their conception of well-being. Some regard well-being as a matter of pleasure and the absence of pain; others have different conceptions of well-being. I don’t know of any philosopher who has suggested that happiness is simply a matter of satisfying whatever desires we might happen to have. (Callicles appears to endorse this view in Plato’s Gorgias ; but Plato makes clear that Callicles was not a philosopher.) Instead, the only desire-satisfaction accounts that have any serious defenders are accounts that put certain constraints on the desires the satisfaction of which would constitute well-being. In the end, I don’t think that any version of this sort of account is viable, but I also don’t believe that such accounts can be easily dismissed. For able defenses of informed desire-satisfaction accounts of well-being, see...

'Zoophiles', as they call themselves, often claim that committing sexual acts with animals is okay because animals are capable of consenting, either by sexual displays (lifting tails, humping hapless human legs, etc), or by not biting/fighting back, or by allowing the human access to them, so to speak. The problem I have with this is that an animal can't attribute the same idea to sex as a human can - for a human sex may be bound up with love and other types of emotions where by and large for animals it is another biological duty. In my opinion that would mean that there is no real consent between an animal and a human because the two are essentially contemplating a different act. Am I missing something here? And is there any validity in the idea that it is wrong to engage in sex with animals because for most humans it is intuitively wrong? If it doesn't really harm anyone - if the animal is unscathed - does that make the whole argument pointless?

I haven’t given much thought to the ethics of sex between humans and non-humans, but it seems to me that the fact that sex between humans requires consent does not imply that sex involving non-human animals requires consent. We require consent in sexual relations between human beings because we believe that making informed choices about intimate relationships is a significant good for human beings. Such choices cannot be part of a good life for non-human animals because such animals are permanently incapable of making them. That’s not to say that non-human animals are to be used as one pleases; it’s simply to say that whether consent occurs or does not occur cannot be a relevant consideration.

Aaron Meskin provided this as part of his response to a question about performance enhancing drugs: "...But there might be other sorts of reasons. Professional athletes are entertainers, and one of the things we value in entertainment is the manifestation of human skill at a very high level. Sport and other forms of entertainment are like art in that way. The use of performance enhancing drugs tends to undercut our sense that sport is valuable and enjoyable because it allows us to experience high levels of skill and human achievement." I think this is a reason IN SUPPORT of performance enhancing drugs! There are individuals who are biologically high on these same hormones, who no doubt enjoy enhanced performance over those who are naturally lower on these same hormones. Why not level the "playing field"? We would see enhanced performance from all players, but the highest from those who have perfected their technique. I don't see how use of these drugs "undercuts" our appreciation of sports. I fully...

I think that you’re absolutely right– if a significant amount of thepleasure that we achieve from watching sports is “the experience ofhigh levels of skill and human achievement,” then anything that raisesthe levels of such skill and achievement, including enhancement drugs,should improve the quality of our experience. But in fact, it seems notto work that way. When we watch a gifted athlete perform an action ofextraordinary grace and prowess, we marvel at the act and at the veryexistence of a person who could perform such an act, and we feelpleasure. But when we learn that his heightened skills were due toperformance-enhancing drugs, we are no longer so impressed; in fact,many of us feel disappointed. There’s nothing special about thisathlete, we reason, since anyone who took these drugs might haveperformed just as well. All of this suggests that part of the source ofour pleasure in watching sports is not simply experiencing “high levelsof skill and human achievement,” but rather experiencing high levels...

Is it 'selfish', as is sometimes indignantly alleged, for an MP - I'm thinking of the UK parliamentary system - to vote on a Bill according to principle when that principle does not follow the party line?

It seems to me that to call an action selfish is to imply (1) that the agent was motivated solely or primarily by considerations of personal self-interest and (2) the action is contrary to the significant interests of others. (I add this second condition because I don’t think that we would be inclined to call a person selfish if, say, he worked on a crossword puzzle simply because he enjoyed the activity and the only harm that he caused to others was the distaste his friends felt at the thought of his indulgence in this activity.) I can see why it might be contrary to the interests of a political party for an MP to vote against the party line, but it doesn’t follow that the MP’s action was selfish. If, for example, the MP opposed the party primarily because she believed that the party line was contrary to the interests of the citizens of Britain, then her vote would not be selfish because her act would not be motivated solely or even primarily by considerations of self-interest. In fact, she...

Am I morally bound to tell my sex partner if I fantasize about someone else whilst making love to her? Or the subject of the fantasy for that matter? SteveB

Now, now, Alan, don’t you think you’re being a bit hard on Thomas? I dothink that many people feel duty bound to reveal every wayward thoughtto their partners, even when they know that their partners would prefernot to know (I’m with Thomas– I would prefer not to have suchknowledge, thank you very much) and even when they know that therelationship and those in it would suffer from such a revelation(again, speaking only personally, while I know that it would notreflect badly on me to learn that my partner fantasizes about sex withsomeone else [after all, doesn’t everyone, no matter how stellar therelationship, think about sex with someone else?], I’m not sure that Iwould be so mature and rational as to not drive myself [and my partner]crazy by getting fixated on the particularities of the fantasy. Whyher? What does she have that I don’t have? And so on.). So what couldthe possible basis for the duty to disclose be, I take Thomas to beasking, if not considerations of autonomy and happiness? For...

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