Is it possible to know something and not be able to express it?

Sure. I know how the grapes in my back yard taste, but I can't come close to expressing that adequately. I know how John Coltrane plays the soprano sax---with an unmatched genius and intensity---but there's not much else I can really say. And I know how it feels when I see my daughter smile. But if you want me to express that, then I'll have to resort to bad poetry.

If love of others is taken to be a supreme value is there any ethical justification for a mature (50+) married man and woman to love each other when they are not married to each other (adultery) assuming children are not at risk (grown and gone or don't exist) and that great care is taken to keep the relationship secret and private (assume both live in distant countries/cultures)? Assume neither pregnancy nor disease are issues. Assume both people live in passionless but stable and friendly situations and recognize legitimate needs of all concerned to social and financial stability. Both divorcing would likely cause much pain and disruption to many. Terminating the relationship would deny both their last chance of expressing their mutual affection, of sharing their highest value. From at least Aristotle on, and for most religions and cultures, adultery is a no brainer - wrong without question. With aging populations in a modern context this question will become more common. If it is wrong, how...

I'm not sure why one would suppose that "love of others"---by which you seem, obviously, to mean romantic love---is a "supreme value", expressing which over-rides so much else. That said, yes, this kind of question is very real. And surely it's possible for someone to decide, in certain circumstances, that it is better to have an affair than to destroy a marriage, neither option being a very good one.

Here is an attack on vegetarianism: Is it better for an animal to exist or not to exist? If it were better for it not to exist, wouldn't it be a virtue sterilising all the animals out there, so that no more come into an unfortunate existence? This would seem absurd. Thus let us conclude that in some cases it is better for an animal to exist. Now the cows, for example, on a farm only exist because someone will eat them later. Assuming also that the cow is kept in humane conditions, and has all the things a cow would want in life, we might conclude that it is better that the cow has been. As this good is wholly dependant on a human being a meat-eater, we conclude that it is virtuous being a meat-eater.

Sorry, but this is a silly argument. Replace "animal" with "person", and you get an argument in favor of breeding children for slaughter. ( Apologies to Jonathan Swift .) But yet, surely, it's better for a person to exist than for it not to exist, right? Actually, that's not so obvious, as we'll shortly see. But if it's not obvious in the case of people, it's certainly not obvious in the case of animals. The argument purports to show that it's (objectively) better for an animal to exist than for it not to exist by showing that, if it were (objectively) better for it not to exist, then we ought to sterilize all the cows. But this assumes that, if it's not (objectively) better for an animal to exist than for it not to exist, then it must be (objectively) better for it not to exist. But the obvious reply is that there's just no better or worse about it. It's neither (objectively) better for one more cow to exist nor (objectively) worse. But then the argument goes nowhere. What's fundamentally...

As regards the point at which we should accord rights to that which would eventually be a child (an embryo, a fetus, etc.), does someone who argues that a given stage is not sufficiently mature have also to answer the question of which WOULD be the critical stage? Or is it enough to say, "Well, I don't know when this thing becomes a person, but it's not a person at day 1."

It's perhaps worth adding that a child has a lot of different rights, and these to different degrees, and there's no particular reason to suppose that these have to come all at once. As a blastocyst becomes an embryo becomes a fetus becomes a child, it would seem that it might acquire these rights, to varying degrees, as it develops.

As I understand it, people use the word "believe" when they are somewhat but not entirely sure of a proposition (e.g., "I believe that he likes cheese", as opposed to "I know that he likes cheese"). If a person "believes" a proposition p, does he KNOW that he BELIEVES that p? Is he absolutely certain that he believes a proposition of which he is just somewhat certain? Or does he BELIEVE that he BELIEVES that p? (Are there other possible formulations?) -ace

You are right that people usually use the word `believe' only if they are not entirely sure. If they were, then they'd say something else, maybe "I know that...", or "I'm sure that...", or just "...", all by itself. But it does not follow that "I believe..." MEANS "I'm not absolutely certain", etc. This point is due to H.P. Grice and is central to his work on `conversational implicature'. We also need to distinguish knowledge from certainty. It may likewise be true that people say "I know" only when they are fairly certain, but it does not follow that "I know..." means: I'm reasonably certain.... What knowledge is, well, that's a disputed question. But let's just pretend it's justified true belief. Then knowing is having a justified true belief, and you could know but not be certain you know, or even be very certain of something you truly believe but not know because you aren't really justified. Most (though not all) philosophers would hold that, if you know that p, then you also believe...

Why do people participate in meaningless activities such as politics, education, mathematics, philosophy and such when either we are all going to die so it won't matter what we have done, or maybe our existence and/or this world is all an illusion so it doesn't matter what happens because it's not real?

There seem to be some large assumptions being made here, such as: If one dies, then it won't matter what one has done. I don't see any reason to believe this. Martin Luther King, Jr, died nearly forty years ago, but what he did with is life seems to have been rather significant. My grandmother died about a decade ago, and while her contributions didn't have quite the global significance that Dr King's did, they were nonetheless important to those of us who knew her and who benefitted from her wisdom, love, and advice, not to mention her giving birth to and raising my mother, who is the sine qua non ("without whom not"), as far as I'm concerned. Death, it has been said, is the ultimate human equalizer, and I'm not saying that one shouldn't live in full awareness of one's mortality. Indeed, I'm inclined to think that, if we did all live in full awareness of the fact that we will one day die, we would live very different lives, focused on things that will survive us rather than upon things that...

Recently an English reviewer of Richard Dawkins' book The God Delusion took Dawkins to task for writing outside his field, suggesting he stick to science. Is this a legitimate criticism? And are there any anti-religious theologians?

I'm guessing the review to which you refer is Terry Eagleton's in the London Review of Books . I sympathize with Eagleton's frustration, though I don't think he quite plays his cards right. Surely it is true that Dawkins would barbecue any theologian who decided to write a book on evolutionary biology without boning up on the subject, and rightly so. One does rather expect that an author will have some minimal knowledge about what he or she is writing about. But the point (my point, anyway) isn't that Dawkins isn't himself religious. The point is that there are lots of people who study religion, and they do so from many different points of view. Some of these people are my colleagues at Brown, and some of them are Dawkins's colleagues in Oxford. Many of them are religious, but some of them are not. And for Dawkins to write on this topic with, so far as I can tell, essentially no real knowledge of this work is intellectually dishonest, at best. I don't think a knowledge of Duns Scotus and...

Hi! I think this is a philosophical question concerning language. I just read this in a newspaper: "They share neither an underlying raison d'être nor a modus operandi." And the question is: what is the language of this sentence?

There are other sorts of examples that pose a more interesting question. There is a phenomenon known as "code switching" in which a bilingual speaker will begin a sentence in one language and end it in another. A simple example would be something like "The man in the funny hat tiene un perro loco". There are examples, better ones, in which it's clear the syntax isn't that of either of the two languages used by the speaker, since, taken as a whole, it violates both. This one is close, since, in English, adjectives generally precede the modified noun whereas, in Spanish, they generally follow the modified noun, but there are exceptions in both cases. One of the things that is interesting about these examples is that the places switching may take place are determined by the underlying grammatical form of the sentence, as described by theoretical linguistics, not by the surface form of the sentence. So this kind of phenomenon provides an interesting sort of evidence for the "psychological reality" of...

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