In light of a question about Irving and Holocaust denial [http://www.amherst.edu

In light of a question about Irving and Holocaust denial [http://www.amherst.edu

Law

In light of a question about Irving and Holocaust denial [http://www.amherst.edu/askphilosophers/question/971], I wonder why free speech should be seen as an absolute principle which has no limits. It seems to me that practical wisdom dictates that in some cases for the good of society (for example, to avoid hate crimes) free speech must have certain limits. I have no idea how to determine those limits and I suspect that there isn't any formula, but perhaps you people can clarify the issue. Thanks.

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