If Hitler in 1941 had the right to send vast numbers of German men to their

If Hitler in 1941 had the right to send vast numbers of German men to their

War

If Hitler in 1941 had the right to send vast numbers of German men to their deaths in Russia and to cause there the deaths of vast numbers of Russians, did he not also have the right to send to their deaths vast numbers of German Jews, whom he viewed as Germany's enemies?

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