Does the Anglo-American tendency in philosophy to privilege clarity in words over a richness of meaning reflect a philosophical purpose or a culturally ingrained bias? I notice a lot of American analytic philosophers seem to disproportionately have names that suggest a British heritage. Is that a coincidence?
while there is somethign to the 'anglo-american' generalization, i'm not sure i accept the premise of your question -- i find analytic philosophy to have plenty of 'richness of meaning' in it ... (and certainly there's no explicit decision to privilege clarity at the cost of meaning ...) i think, anyway -- but hm, this is provocative. ap
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