Why don't philosophers clearly define their terms in relation to the "theist/atheist" debate. Surely before we begin a philosophical discussion we should clearly define our terms; but when it comes to the existence of "God"; both theists and atheists just assume that everyone knows what "God" refers to. Once we have established- when the debate takes place in a Christian context- that "God" refers to the mythological creator deity "Yahweh" of the Bible; is it logical for us to even debate his existence? I mean, we don't debate the existence of the creator deities of African mythology (who have similar properties to the Biblical deity). Could this be a large-scale unexamined cultural bias?
It certainly isn't the case that both theists and atheists just assume that everyone knows what "God" refers to. Reflective theists worry about what "God" refers to. And indeed, at least for some atheists, their problems start exactly here too: they listen to what their local friendly theists are saying about the God they supposedly believe in and they find they just can't make enough sense of it. For such an atheist, it isn't that they well know what kind of thing this God would be if he existed but don't think that there's anything that fits the role. Rather, rightly or wrongly, they think that the stories about the alleged being -- at least those told by believers who try to go beyond crude anthropomorphic myth -- fail to describe a coherent role that anything could fit. Round our neck of the woods these atheists of course mostly hear Judeo-Christian stories to be ultimately baffled by; it is the local believers who, as it were, set the agenda for the local unbelievers. It isn't so much a matter...
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