If Hitler in 1941 had the right to send vast numbers of German men to their deaths in Russia and to cause there the deaths of vast numbers of Russians, did he not also have the right to send to their deaths vast numbers of German Jews, whom he viewed as Germany's enemies?
There are, of course, differences between the two cases. The Soviets did at least have some opportunity to defend themselves, for instance. On the other hand, vastly more of them died. So let's just put all such differences to one side, and suppose that the two cases are indeed equivalent. Okay then, if Hitler had the right to invade the USSR, then he had the right to slaughter the German Jews. But so what? The antecedent of the conditional is plainly false. Why on earth would anyone think he had the right to invade the USSR?