College sport is big business, and generates a tremendous amount of revenue. Should the player receive some share of that money?

Before I begin, let me issue a quick reminder: Not all college sports is big business. Some of it is, to be sure: Big-time college football, basketball, and the like. But college golf, tennis, swimming, and gymnastics don't generate much revenue, except perhaps at the most elite programs, and college sports don't generate much revenue at all at institutions like, say, MIT. So when I talk about college sports and "student athletes" below, I'm talking about only some college sports programs. So, that said, I used to be a huge fan of college basketball. (I went to Duke. Go figure.) Now I hardly watch at all, and the reason you mention is perhaps the most significant. The rules governing (that is, prohibiting) the compensation of "student athletes" were put in place many years ago to protect the interests of such students. For example, there was concern that a student might decide to go to school X rather than school Y, not because school X would better serve that student's long-term interests---which...

Many women who have abortions do so because they realize they won't be able to give the child a decent upbringing. Many anti-abortionists are Catholic and are opposed to birth control (and sex for enjoyment unless it coincides with the possibility of conception - go figure!) which may lead to the very problem they get so exercised about. Don't anti-abortion advocates then have a moral obligation to adopt the offspring mentioned in the first paragraph so as to assure them an affluent upbringing if it is within their means? Crack babies, for example, are not simply a matter of debate about abstract religious dogma. Am I right in detecting massive hypocrisy here? As a rule they don't seem to give a damn, just so long as the foetus survives. The hardship and misery probably awaiting it is conveniently ignored. Also, is it only in religions that we find sexual desire a source of guilt and shame? Surely not. The ancient Greeks had none of our hang ups. Thanks for an edifying site.

There are obviously profound moral issues in the abortion debate, and I for one, while respectfully disagreeing with the Catholic Church's position on the legality of abortion, can't even begin to understand its opposition to birth control. And perhaps it is worth emphasizing, for the record, that it is with this aspect of the Church's position that I disagree. Like most who would defend its legality, I am not a fan of abortion. That said, however, it is unfair to accuse opponents of abortion of the sort of hypocrisy you do. While they may or may not be right in their desire to see abortion criminalized, many of those who hold this view do actively assist pregnant women in placing their children for adoption. The Catholic Church, for example, has long actively supported adoption. That is not to say there have not been controversies in this area, too: Some adoption agencies, especially in Latin America, have been accused of discouraging women from placing their children for adoption. But that is a...

I have been reading about abortion recently and came across a ‘thought experiment’ used by Judis Jarvis Thomson about an expanding baby. The scenario is that you're in your house when your baby starts expanding rapidly. You realise that you have no chance of getting out and the only way to survive is to pop and kill the baby. The idea is that this is an analogy for mothers who will die if an abortion is not performed i.e. is it ok to kill in this form of self-defence? These thought experiments are designed to provoke a moral attitude which can then be applied to discover your true feelings on a particular issue. My instant reaction was that yes, it was ok to pop the baby in order to survive and therefore I believe abortion is ok if it saves the life of the mother. However, imagine that the baby is now an analogy not for abortion but for a virus like AIDS, by the same thought experiment it could be argued that saying yes would justify killing everyone who had AIDS in order to save everyone else in...

The short answer is that one has to ask whether the analogy is a good one, and my immediate intuition is that it is not a good one in the case of AIDS, at least not as you are using it. To what, in that case, is the expanding baby supposed to be analogous? The AIDS virus? If so, then what the thought experiment suggests is that one woudl be justified in killing the AIDS virus. But of course we already knew that. If the thought experiment is supposed to "justify killing everyone who had AIDS", then, the expanding baby would have to be analogous to a person who had contracted the AIDS virus. But it isn't: People who have the AIDS virus do not pose an imminent risk of death to those who do not, and killing all such people is (fortunately!) not the only way to save oneself, if one has not contracted the virus. Whether the analogy is a good one in the other case is a different question, and one's answer to that question will turn upon one's understanding of the relationship between a woman and the...

Why has Ayn Rand become so inconsequential to modern philosophy? The point is underscored by the lack of any references to Rand on your site, save one instance where someone asked if there were any refutations of Rand's Objectivism available – to which a link was dutifully supplied. The point is further underscored by some questions in regards to women in philosophy (or the lack thereof) which, to my amazement, Rand was not referred to (even begrudgingly) as a positive example. My pet theories about this situation have something to do with her aligning herself strongly with Capitalism, while philosophers historically have been left leaners or overtly aristocratic (of sorts) but never very money orientated, which is probably seen as a very Earthly consideration to dwell on. Some say that Rands format of conveying philosophical ideas in the form of novels has not helped her cause much. If this consideration is to be given weight then why should Socratic dialog, for example, be so revered? The methodology...

I don't think Rand's alignment with Capitalism has much to do with her lack of influence on modern philosophy. It's true, to be sure, that the majority of philosophers nowadays tend to be left-of-center, but there are plenty that are not. To give but one example from recent philosophy, Robert Nozick's Anarchy, State, and Utopia could hardly be described as leftist, but it is an acknowledged classic nonetheless. Similarly, Rand's presentation of her ideas in novels isn't unique. There are writings of Nietzsche's that are in much the same form, and he's still taken seriously. I'm afraid the reason Rand is "so inconsequential to modern philosophy" is rather less interesting: The overwhelming majority of contemporary philosophers find her work to be of poor quality.

I don't understand the approach in answering some of the questions. When asking if something is "important" or what "duty" is or what "right" is, why answer with examples of stuff that's one of those terms or give an insight on the subject rather than attacking the word itself and finding what it means. We're already in a hole due to the problem of causation and must find associations and directions of fit. So why not really get deep within the skin to find out what a word like "important" or "right" or "duty" means (at least to the best of our abilities). Isn't the source of much dispute in other fields that people aren't on the same page as to what a particular word or term means? Philosophy is much better than that. Or am I missing something?

I think most people here would agree with much of what you have to say, though with some differences. First, the question isn't so much what the word "right", say, means but, rather, what rights are. And similarly, it isn't so much that people don't agree about what the word "right" means: It's that they don't agree about what rights are, or under what circumstances someone would have one, or what have you. It doesn't follow that all these people mean different things by the word "right". If it did, then it would be impossible to disagree about anything. Second, to answer some questions involving the notion of a right we may not need to know exactly what rights are. This is a good thing, since some very smart people have considered this question over the last several centuries and, while real progress has been made, complete consensus has not yet been reached. Still, for some purposes, as I said, we may not need complete consensus. It may be enough if we agree about certain aspects of the...

If I say that all faces are beautiful, the word "beautiful" is meaningless, because, as far as I can see, it only has meaning if something can be "ugly". Now what if I say that all music is perfect, does that make sense? I think not, but it's not as obvious why not. What if I say that all days are cold, does that make sense? It might, if there was some kind of independent standard of coldness, which all days complied with. I'm looking for some kind of rule which tells me what kind of sentences of the form all X is Y are meaningless and what kind of sentences are not. Is there a rule? Thank you.

It was a central goal of Logical Positivism to discover a criterion for meaningfulness. None was ever formulated that satisfied anyone for very long. There are a couple more specific things to be said here. First, it would not follow that "All faces are beautiful" is meaningless even if, as you claim, "beautiful" was meaningful only if "something can be 'ugly'". For one thing, there may well be other things---feces, perhaps---that are not beautiful, and, as you state your claim, it isn't even required that something else should actually be ugly, only that something can be ugly. So it wouldn't even follow from that claim that "Everything is beautiful" is not meaningful, only that "Everything must be beautiful" was. But I don't myself see why the meaningfulness of a word depends upon its applying only to some things and not to all things. On my view, though not on everyone's view, "exists" is a word that applies to everything. You might say that unicorns do not exist, so that the word "exist...

Hello, My question is as follows: If we have no hope of knowing with certitude (beyond doubt) the reason behind creation itself (why it exists), whether there was choice behind it or if it was inevitable (from God´s perspective), unless we somehow "become God" in all aspects, then I don´t really understand what's the point of studying religion, philosophy, mysticism, etc., because in the end you will never aquire answers to the questions you are really after. And if there ever was a curse put upon us by a divine being, then surely this is the biggest and cruelest of them all. Any comments and reflections would be utterly appreciated. With regards, Moeed.

I find this question somewhat puzzling, because it assumes that the only point of studying some subject is to "find the answers". I very much hope that is not true, because I am quite sure that I'll never know the answers to many, if any, of the big questions I spend my time studying. That does not, however, mean I am not learning something along the way, even something important, and making some kind of contribution. I think the same is true of the study (or better, the practice) of religion. I don't expect ever truly to understand life, the universe, and everything, but that doesn't mean I can't come to understand something about it.

I am beginning to think this question is a big question mark not only to me, but to some of you Sirs as well--as I have submitted it a couple of times now, and it hasn't even been posted. But let me restate it. A position which holds that there are no absolutes (by which I refer to something akin to the noumena, in Kantian terms) is necessarily wrong. Such position could in fact be synthesized as follows: "I believe there are no absolutes." But such a claim is an absolute in itself. Thus, absolutes must exist. The alternative would be something like "I believe there might not be absolutes". Which nonetheless leaves room for the possibility of the existence of absolutes. Hence, absolutes can, indeed, exist. How do we, as "relativists", argue against the claim that seems to follow logically from what was said--and, that is, that "absolutes necessarily exist"? Thanks...

This is a version of a familiar argument against radical relativism. As one usually sees it, it involves the claim "All truth is relative", and then the question is whether the truth of that claim is relative. If so, then relativism may well be false, relative to something or other; if not, then, well, there is one non-relative truth. So far as I can see, this argument is solid. Radical relativism is self-refuting. It does not follow, however, that weaker forms of relativism are self-refuting. Indeed, even the view stated as "All truths other than this one are relative" does not seem to be self-refuting. One might wonder what motivation there was for such an odd view, but it does seem consistent. More interestingly, views like moral relativism is not self-refuting: The claim that all moral truths are relative to, say, one's culture is not itself a moral claim and so does not fall within the scope of moral relativism. (That does not, of course, mean that moral relativism is true .)

I'm a female philosophy student, and I had an argument with my sister about the lack of female philosophers taught in college classes. She claimed that this was because of current sexism in the field of philosophy -- the mostly male philosophy professors disregard many great female philosophers and don't teach them. I thought that it was just a product of past sexism -- there historically haven't been many women in the field of philosophy, and therefore very few great female philosophers. Who's right? And if there aren't great female philosophers, should texts by women be taught anyway, as a kind of affirmative action?

It is, first of all, worth saying that the work of female philosophers is widely taught in philosophy courses. For the most part, this would be in courses on contemporary issues. As I mentioned in responding to a different question, question 1202 , there are a lot of very highly regarded women in philosophy nowadays. I would be very surprised indeed, perhaps even suspicious, if asignificant amount of work by women were not included in, say, anundergraduate introductory ethics course. In the more technical parts of philosophy, that might not be so. My own introductory philosophy of language courses usually don't include work by women on the main reading list, though there are usually papers by women mentioned as optional or additional readings, and arguments from these papers will get mentioned in lecture. When I teach more advanced courses in philosophy of language, I certainly do include work by women such as Ruth Barcan Marcus, Marga Reimer, or Delia Graff. I take this to reflect the fact that,...

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