Is it possible, and is it likely, that philosophy is a field that is about catching up, rather than discovering? I mean that philosophy's job is to put into words that are convincing knowledge that people already know, from insight. For example, someone might have come to terms with their eventual death in a profound way and be at peace about it. That person might not be a philosopher, but s/he "knows" the answer to questions about death; s/he simply can't put it into words. That's what philosophy does, it seems to me. In this sense, philosophy isn't discovering things people don't already know. Does this make sense?

Yes, this makes sense: philosophy as clear articulation of certain insights. I'd add two qualifications, though. First, sometimes what feels like a compelling insight disintegrates under scrutiny. Think, for example, of some of the apparent insights Socrates is described as demolishing in the Platonic dialogues. Second, philosophy does much more than merely seek to articulate what people already know from insight. For example, some of the most brilliant philosophical writings ask new questions that had never occurred to anyone before. Thus Kant, for instance, asks how time consciousness is possible. All I am aware of stands together in one mental state. So how do I so much as get the idea that things happen (follow one another) in time? His predecessors took this for granted -- Hume, for example, who sought to explain our sense of causal connection as based on repeated experiences with some A-event followed by some B-event. Kant's response is that, in order for us to take events to belong to...

Referring to propositional logic conditionals, if we say that an antecedent A is a necessary and sufficient condition for consequent B, can we say that A caused B?

No. That A is a necessary condition for B means that B presupposes A, that B cannot hold without A also holding. That A is a sufficient condition for B means that A implies B, that A cannot hold without B also holding. That A is a necessary and sufficient condition for B thus states a symmetrical relation between A and B: Neither can hold without the other, that is, both hold or neither. If A being a necessary and sufficient condition for B indeed implied that A caused B then, given symmetry, it would likewise imply that B caused A. A and B would have caused each other -- a rather odd way for them to come about. An example may help. In this example, A is that you are an unmarried male human adult at some given time t, and B is that you are a bachelor and this same time t. Your being an unmarried male human adult at t is a necessary condition for your being a bachelor at t. (For you to be a bachelor at t, you must be an unmarried male human adult at t. Your being a...

If an intact window is broken, is it still a window, but a broken one, or starts to be (after the moment of fracture) a new thing?

This clearly depends on how severe the damage is. If there's a slight crack in the glass, people would still call it a window. If glass and frame are lying about, smashed into a few thousand pieces, no one (except an eccentric philosopher) would say that what's left is a window. So how severe -- you will ask -- may the damage be exactly? This depends on standard use of the words of our language. Interestingly, things may cease under one description and continue under another. After some creative modification, what was a Hercules statue is still a statue, but not one of Hercules. After further modification it's no longer a statue at all, but still a piece of bronze. Similarly, when a caterpillar turns into a butterfly, a caterpillar ceases to exist, a butterfly begins to exist, yet an animal continues to exist throughout. Philosophers have argued a great deal over whether what we say about such transformations is merely conventional (having to do with the words we have in our language and how...

What place does social welfare have within the larger context of the social contract? In other words, is there a philosophical connection (and/or basis) between social welfare and the ideas and principles inherent within the social contract? Stated in its most elementary form, the social contract requires human beings to give up some of their natural rights in order to receive certain protections that government provides under the social contract. The question therefore is whether or not social welfare constitutes one of these "protections"? Did John Locke, Rousseau, or Hobbes ever speak of social welfare as an inherent aspect of the social contract? Is it logical or illogical -- on a strictly philosophical basis -- to suppose that social welfare is a natural product of the social contract? Are there any other authors/works that might be cited that deal with this philosophical investigation?

If we understand welfare broadly in terms of the fulfillment of human interests, then the idea of a social contract among human beings is related, in the first instance, to individual welfare. Each contractor will work out, on the basis of her or his own interests, what agreement to seek or to make. Social welfare (understood as some aggregate of individual "welfares" or in some other way) is typically said to result from social arrangements justified through a social contract -- either because contractors do not know how alternative designs of the social order would affect them in particular and therefore seek a design that is good for all or because each contractor will resist designs that impose great risks or burdens upon herself. A widely shared element of social-contract thinking is then that the agreement or contract brings the contractors a net welfare gain relative to non-agreement. The contractors are more than compensated, in welfare terms, for what they give up.

It's been stated at many places on this site that logical philosophical argument has the unique ability to garner universal recognition of its validity, whereas appeals to emotions, faith or the like presumably do not. If this is the case, why wouldn't a philosopher exercise his right to free speech in this country and make a serious political difference? Say a Professor of Logic doesn't like President George Bush. It would seem not such a time-consuming or difficult task for him to point out, perhaps in a NY Times Editorial article, the lack of logical connections in claims the President has made. Philosophers seem to me to be rather withdrawn by nature. They have the ability to refute prominent arguments out there in the world, but are too reclusive and anti-outspoken to do this. Perhaps this is to blame, more than anything else, for the low level of discourse, in terms of logical content, out there?

I agree that philosophers -- and not just professors of logic but especially also moral and political philosophers -- ought to play a much greater role in public political debate in the US. Our country contrasts here with many European countries where -- thanks to extensive media access -- the name recognition of the leading philosophers (e.g., Juergen Habermas) is vastly higher than that of our leading philosophers (e.g., John Rawls) is in the US. The reasons are complex. I don't think it's merely a matter of getting academics to submit OpEds to the New York Times and similar outlets. Another important factor is that the US media will simply decline to print academic comentary outside the mainstream. Here again the contrast to Europe is interesting. I have tried on numerous occasions to get important comments published in the media. I have found this to be difficult in Europe (including the UK) and vastly more difficult in the US. The reason given for rejection is typically that, while the point...
War

I am in the part-time military and I may be deployed to active service. Can I reasonably justify the deaths of any people I am required to kill during operations?

This question cannot be answered in general terms. Some killings that you may be required to perform may be justifiable, others not. Generally, killings in war are thought to be justifiable when two conditions are both fulfilled: Your country must have a just cause for being involved in the war in the first place. And each potentially lethal action within the war must be aimed at a legitimate target while taking great care to spare others who are not a threat. You must reassure yourself on both counts before you start killing people on the orders of others. This can be quite straightforward when you are ordered to defend your country against invading soldiers. But it can be far more difficult, if not impossible, when you are ordered to participate in an attack upon, and occupation of, another country. Taking the U.S. invasion of Iraq as an example, there is considerable doubt about the first condition. The U.S. sought but failed to obtain UN Security Council authorization. The weapons of mass...

There is this field of philosophy called "social and political philosophy." I have a difficulty distinguishing "social" from "political." How does "social philosophy" differ from "political philosophy"? I think this is significant; otherwise, the field should be simply called either "social philosophy" or "political philosophy."

The main reason for adding "social and" to "political philosophy" seems to be to include conceptual, empirical, and normative questions about human social life that do not fall within the political as conventionally conceived -- for example, issues about shaping the personality and character of young people through education in schools and in the family. The expression "social philosophy" for the whole field would be quite bland (the expression occurs rarely on its own). It would not make sufficiantly clear that the central concern is to think about political systems and the rules that structure them and the rules generated by them (which importantly organize and condition much of human life in the last few millennia).

The debate between science and religion has gone on for many years, and many people think that they must choose one or the other to believe. To me, it's a lot like trying to collide two trains on parallel tracks. If one chooses to believe in God, then that person can still believe in the big bang or evolution while believing that God created the universe, because religion explains what happens on a spiritual level, and science explains what happens on a physical level. The two run parallel. Using this as a way of thinking, can science contradict religion at all, and why has the debate between the two gone on for so long when this explanation reconciles them?

Your idea works fine on a certain modest understanding of religion. If religion were only about the Divine, perhaps with the additional thought that God created the universe, then no explanation given by science of anything in the universe could interfere with religion. Religions are typically not so modest, however. A typical religion may ascribe certain duties to human beings along with the freedom and responsibility to live up to these duties. And this can raise scientific (and philosophical!) doubts about whether human beings have the requisite freedom. In response, you might propose dividing human beings over your two levels: into a physical body (brain included) and a spirit or soul. But this proposal raises further puzzles about the relation between these two parts or components of human beings. If religion attributes some of what you do to your soul it may compete with scientific theories that attribute all your conduct and thinking to physical causes. If religion attributes nothing you...

Do affirmative action programs make sense in a free market society? Affirmative action programs seek to create equality of opportunity. Free markets seek to reward the best ideas/practices (and hence create inequality). Are the two ever reconcilable then (where one creates equality, the other undoes it)?

The conflict you see would really exist if the only way to reward the best ideas/practices were through superior opportunities (either for the person or for her offspring). This might happen in a society in which opportunities are for sale. In such a society, the more affluent people can buy a superior education for their children, one to which the children of poorer citizens have no access. And the children of the affluent can then qualify for jobs that children of the poor have no chance of obtaining. Our society is of this kind, and so are -- to a lesser extent -- most other societies. But societies don't have to be organized in this way. A society might financially reward the best contributions but then block conversion of these financial rewards into educational opportunities. The quality of the public schools of such a society would not vary with the affluence of the area it serves (as is the case when public schools are funded through local property taxes). And any private schools would be...

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