I am really fascinated with Hume's discovery that an "ought" cannot be derived

I am really fascinated with Hume's discovery that an "ought" cannot be derived

I am really fascinated with Hume's discovery that an "ought" cannot be derived from an "is." However, I've also read that the argument of Hume is a failure. My question then is, what can be the most reasonable response to this accusation of Hume? Is he right or wrong on the matter?

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