Suppose that a fetus is at a stage when it is considered permissible to be aborted. Suppose that the woman bearing the fetus decides, for some reason, that she would prefer that the child be born with no arms. To that end, she takes some kind of potion, and the child is later born with no arms.
I think that most people would feel that the woman's action was wrong because it was wrong to deprive the child that was born of his or her arms and their use.
But if that's true, why is it permissible to deprive the child that would have been born of his or her body and its use?