The AskPhilosophers logo.

Language

Do words only have the power that we give them?
Accepted:
April 19, 2017

Comments

By "power" in this context, I

Stephen Maitzen
May 4, 2017 (changed May 4, 2017) Permalink

By "power" in this context, I take it you're referring to the psychological, rhetorical, or political power of words. I can't see any source of such power except us humans. That isn't to say that the power is unreal, only that words possess no internal magic, contrary to what humans in general used to (and some still) believe. Nor is it to say that any individual can render words powerless simply by deciding to. A racial slur, for instance, might induce people to physically harm the person targeted by the slur even if the person targeted decides to regard the slur as having no power over him or her.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/26489
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org