The AskPhilosophers logo.

Ethics

Is it abuse, if the person ( allegely abused) does not consider it abuse? If the person is an adult and feels ok with it is it abuse?
Accepted:
December 13, 2012

Comments

Thomas Pogge
December 15, 2012 (changed December 15, 2012) Permalink

Not necessarily. The fact that the adult in question feels OK with the treatment she receives does not show that her feeling is based on a sound judgment. Not long ago, black citizens of the US were routinely treated as inferior creatures: they were scolded for drinking from the whites-only water fountain, for sitting in the front of the bus, and so on. Some blacks, deeply conditioned to feel inferior in a white society, may have felt OK with such abuse ("oh gosh, yes, I am so sorry, I didn't realize this is the whites-only water fountain"). But this hardly shows that there was no abuse going on when blacks were told off in the ways described.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/4964?page=0
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org