The AskPhilosophers logo.

Ethics
Happiness

If the market for certain entertainment media - films, video games, television, etc. - prefers to consume media that is sexist, racist, heteronormative, or otherwise prejudiced against certain groups, should the creators of such media nevertheless try to produce "fair" media? Why? As a consumer who wants fair depictions in media, what right do I have to demand that media be fair to minorities, if that means denying the majority what they want?
Accepted:
January 3, 2012

Comments

Oliver Leaman
January 14, 2012 (changed January 14, 2012) Permalink

There are a few reasons to not just give people what they want. First, how do they know unless they are given alternatives? Secondly, what they want may have dangerous consequences for others and be incompatible with life in a civilized society.

The demand for fairness is a basic moral demand and on occasion may well not be popular, but that is irrelevant to its rationale.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/4481?page=0
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org