Knowledge
Skeptical hypotheses (Descartes' evil demon, for instance) seem to rely on the following proposition: it is possibly that I am being systematically deceived (that all of my sensory impressions are actually infelicitous, say). My question is: is his proposition known <i>a priori</i>? or is it empirical?
Accepted:March 9, 2011
Accepted:
March 9, 2011