The AskPhilosophers logo.

Knowledge

If we apply nihilism to all knowledge, how is the paradox it creates overcome, as to deny an existence of knowledge is to stand by something known to oneself? Wittgenstein's idea to kick away the ladder seems to some what fill the void but it isn't exactly a satisfying filler!
Accepted:
October 14, 2010

Comments

Andrew Pessin
October 15, 2010 (changed October 15, 2010) Permalink

hm. why can't we methodically critique the possibility of knowledge in various domains w/o ever explicitly addressing the question of whether we can 'know' that knowledge (in general) is impossible? or, is it really self-contradictory (a paradox) to claim that all knowledge is impossible, even this -- for when one denies 'knowledge' one typically replaces it with something less prestigious (like belief, maybe) -- and so one can coherently say I believe that no knowledge is possible (and that belief is the most we can get) .....?

ap

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/3578
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org