The AskPhilosophers logo.

Ethics
Religion
Sex

Nazism is an anti-Semitic and therefore immoral ideology. Public officials and institutions in Nazi-era Germany which did not speak out against Nazism therefore can be seen as having had a moral failing. Christianity is a homophobic and therefore immoral religion. Public officials and institutions of today which don't speak out against Christianity therefore have a moral failing. Is there anything wrong with this logic?
Accepted:
September 30, 2010

Comments

Eddy Nahmias
September 30, 2010 (changed September 30, 2010) Permalink

I think the logic is fine, but I'm not sure about the content of the argument. The argument structure is:

1. X is an institution with an essential goal that is clearly immoral.

2. It is wrong for individuals and institutions not to do what they can to prevent an institution from achieving immoral goals.

3. So, it is wrong for individuals and institutions not to do what they can to prevent X from achieving its immoral goals.

If we fill in Nazism for X and wiping out Jews for their essential immoral goal, the valid argument also looks sound (i.e., the premises and therefore the conclusion are true). But if we fill in Christianity for X, that argument is less clearly sound, mainly because Christianity is a much more diverse institution than Nazism with more varied essential goals. Some Christians take their religion to require fighting against homophobic practices, just as some fought against slavery and racism, while other Christians take it as an essential implication of their religion that homosexuality is wrong, just as some fought to protect slavery and segregation.

If we focus on the latter, fundamentalist Christians, then I think the argument is sound. Public officials and institutions, as well as individuals, should speak out against the homophobia of fundamentalist Christians (and Jews and Muslims and others). All of this is based on the premise, which I believe is true, that homophobic practices (such as discrimination against gays in employment, marriage, adoptions, etc.) are immoral.

However, there is one other problem with your argument by analogy. Very very few Christians suggest that homosexuals should be treated the way Nazis treated Jews (and the way Nazis treated homosexuals!). There is a big difference between saying homosexuals cannot marry and saying homosexuals should be rounded up and systematically slaughtered. This difference suggests different reactions--e.g., violent war against Nazis vs. non-violent protests and public confrontation against homophobes. Nonetheless, as we have seen recently, homophobia can have deadly consequences, and it needs to be banished from our society along with other forms of discrimination.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/3556?page=0
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org