Topics Philosophers

Question My question concerns Nietzsche's Anti-Christ, section 44. He's talking here about how the Gospels (and Christianity generally) have been historically read as "the Book of Innocence". The part which puzzles me reads:"The whole of mankind, even the finest heads of the finest epochs (with one exception who is perhaps merely a monster) have allowed themselves to be deceived." (A.44) My question is: Who is the "monster" who Nietzsche is here referring to?

Accepted:
May 26, 2010

Comments

The word translated 'monster' in the edition you cite is 'Unmensch' -- thus, 'inhuman' is probably better, because it captures the very Nietzschean ambiguity between concepts of 'animal', 'monster' and 'overhuman'. Anyway, I've not done a really thorough study of late period Nietzsche so I'm not sure if there is a definitive answer to be found somewhere. But, rather than let your question go unanswered, I thought I would venture my suggestions. I suspect he either is referring to Cesare Borgia (see sections 46 and 61, and also Twilight section 37); or, less likely, to himself and/or his Zarathustra (cf Anti-Christ, section 54).