The AskPhilosophers logo.

Logic
Religion

Is this argument evidence of the existence of heaven: "For every need humans have there is a corresponding means of fulfillment. There is hunger and so there is food, there is lust and therefore sex. Finally there is desire for eternal happiness, therefore there must be heaven." I don't think that this is a good argument but I don't know how to refute it. Thanks.
Accepted:
May 12, 2009

Comments

Peter Smith
May 12, 2009 (changed May 12, 2009) Permalink

Note, desiring something isn't needing it. I may desire a villa in Tuscany, but I don't need one. And, whatever is the case with needs, plainly it isn't the case that for every human desirethere is a way of fulfilling it (especially given other people's desires). Maybe lots of us would love a villa in Tuscany; but we can't all get one. And in fact we often desire flatly impossible things. Lots of humans would love totime-travel: but of course that desire doesn't make itpossible. And maybe lots of us would love to live for ever: butthere's no reason to suppose that merely having the desire makes eternal life possibleeither.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/2699
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org