The AskPhilosophers logo.

Language

I read that questions are directive speech acts, where the questioner requests for some information or, in any case, for an answer. An exception is usually accepted for rhetorical questions. Being a teacher who has to examine students, I often ask questions, but I'm never requesting information or, at least, never on the questioned subject. My students are also always absolutely free not to answer, and I will certainly not blame them for that. Does this mean that my questions aren't real questions?
Accepted:
October 17, 2006

Comments

Amy Kind
October 19, 2006 (changed October 19, 2006) Permalink

Many statements that have the apparent form of a question do not function as interrogative speech acts. For example, in many contexts, if I say, "Can you please close the door?," my remark really functions as a command rather than as a question. (Likewise, my declarative statement, "You haven't closed the door" can function as a command in certain contexts.)

So, if you really aren't looking for answers or information from your students, perhaps your remarks in class that have the apparent form of questions function in some other way. Perahps as commands -- when you say, "Can anyone think of a reason that ... ?" you might be instructing them to think about the issue. Or perhaps as declarative statements -- you might simply be imparting information to them.

But, given what you said above, it's not clear to me that your apparent questions don't really function as questions. The fact that your students are free not to answer, and that you don't blame them for not answering, does not mean that you're not asking. For example, when you posted your remarks to this site, the panelists are certainly free not to answer, and you might not blame us for our silence, but that doesn't mean that you haven't asked us a real question.

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/1412
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org