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I was taking a Dance History class the other day and my professor made a comment stating: Philosophers believe that if one does not possess a language to express their thoughts, they have none. Is this true? If so, how does one express the phenomenons of people with disabilities (such as being deaf) or even one of the greatest minds in the world: Helen Keller? If one does not have a language to verbally express emotion, why are other non-verbal forms of communication (especially dance) not justified in the eyes of the philosopher?
Accepted:
September 12, 2006

Comments

Louise Antony
September 14, 2006 (changed September 14, 2006) Permalink

Your dance teacher is correct in thinking that some philosophers believe that there cannot be thought without language, but not that all philosophers believe this. I do not, for example.

There was a very similar question to yours that I answered a while back. Check out question 953.

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