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Hello, I am just a concerned college student. I have read the <i>Groundwork for the Metaphysics of Morals</i> by Kant and I am particularly convinced by Kant's Humanity as an End formulation. On this formulation, I refuse to randomly hook-up with girls at fraternity parties because I believe that would amount to using (and letting myself be used) merely as means and not as an end, which would violate the dignity of being a human. For the same reason, I deny to dabble in any sort of sexual contact unless I have a flourishing relationship with the person. My question is: Am I interpreting Kant in the right way? That is to say, does sexual contact of any sort or intensity (i.e. from making out to sexual intercourse) without a relationship amount to using someone as merely means?
Accepted:
August 26, 2006

Comments

Thomas Pogge
August 28, 2006 (changed August 28, 2006) Permalink

Yes, you interpret correctly.

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Alan Soble
September 1, 2006 (changed September 1, 2006) Permalink

Yes and no. Although, mostly yes. For the most comprehensive treatment of the issue (Kant and/on sex) that I know, see my essay "Sexual Use and What to Do about It: Internalist and Externalist Sexual Ethics," Essays in Philosophy 2:2 (June, 2001) [online journal, at Humboldt State] or, better, the longer versions reprinted in my Philosophy of Sex, 4th ed., and posted on my website, at http://fs.uno.edu/asoble/pages/sexuse.htm (yet more of the territory is covered in detail in my "Kant and Sexual Perversion," The Monist 86:1 (2003), pp. 57-92; also found on my web site. Insert, at the end of the URL, the file name kmonist.htm instead). Plenty of references to other essays on Kant and/on sex are provided. You'll have to consult the Vorlesung (Lectures on Ethics; Heath's edition) and the Metaphysics of Morals (Gregor) to make up your own mind.

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