The AskPhilosophers logo.

Philosophy

When you get past the rhetoric on 'most convincing arguments and logical reasoning', are people's preferences for a certain type of philosophy merely subjective 'taste'?
Accepted:
November 10, 2005

Comments

Alexander George
November 10, 2005 (changed November 10, 2005) Permalink

I don't think it's rhetoric. Philosophers (and people generally) dochange their positions on the basis of the arguments. Maybe you thinkit should happen more often than it does. But theforce of arguments is one that makes itself felt regularly inphilosophy. That said, I think there is something to the claim thattaste plays a role inshaping the kinds of problems, answers, arguments, examples, etc. thatappeal to a philosopher. But why the deflationary "merely subjective"?Certainly, the importance of taste isn't felt just in philosophy; it's felt as well in the natural sciences and mathematics (not to mention most other human pursuits).

  • Log in to post comments
Source URL: https://askphilosophers.org/question/492
© 2005-2025 AskPhilosophers.org