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Do you think it is wrong to sell something (an idea, a product) to someone who doesn't really want it by convincing him that he does?
Accepted:
November 5, 2005

Comments

Richard Heck
November 6, 2005 (changed November 6, 2005) Permalink

This question could mean two different things, depending upon what's meant by "convincing him that he does". If what's meant is that one convinces the person to want the product, so that, in the end, the person really does want it, then I don't see why that should be objectionable. People change their minds about things all the time.

But the tone of the question suggests a different reading, on which, even after being "convinced", the person doesn't really want the product. In that case, it seems as if what one has done is simply to manipulate the person, to arrange the situation so as to make it difficult or impossible for h'er to act on h'er considered preferences. And that, yes, seems very objectionable indeed.

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