Hello! I was hoping someone could help me. People sometimes think in terms of a private/public distinction, and say that governments ought not legislate with respect to the private realm. For instance, this is used as an argument as to why governments shouldn't prohibit homosexuality; and I think Arendt used it as an argument as to why segregation in schools should be allowed. But is there anything that justifies a private/public distinction in the first place and says that governments shouldn't be able to legislate with respect to the private? Also, is the public/private distinction more descriptive than prescriptive? I mean, arguments often say "Homosexuality is private, and therefore governments shouldn't make laws about it", but is "private" more description than prescription, and it's the fact that governments shouldn't make laws about homosexuality that makes it private?

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