All human activities seem to have dramatic, defining, pivotal moments. Take basketball : 1987 Game 5 Celtics v. Pistons. Dennis Rodman rejects Larry Bird with 5 seconds left. Pistons take the ball. All they need to do is inbound the ball and hold it and they take a 3-2 series lead home. Instead, Larry steals Isiah's inbound pass and the Celtics win. Wow. Of course there are many such moments in sports. What are the equivalent moments in Philosophy? What Philosopher, finally, in what paper, knocked down a prevalent theory held for 1,000 years? That kind of thing. Can a few of you contribute your favorite moments in the history of philosophy?

I have been hoping, and am still hoping, that others might chime in here, because I'm really curious to see everyone else post their own personal favourites. But here are a couple of mine. Hmm... am I required to think of sporting analogies? Sport is really not my forte. But I do remember a certain goal that a young David Beckham once scored for Manchester United, back in the mid-90s, with a single kick from behind the halfway line. I'd equate that with Edmund Gettier's 1963 paper, 'Is Justified True Belief Knowledge?'. Ever since Plato's Theaetetus , those who had wondered about such things at all had been largely satisfied that the answer was yes. (Ironically, Plato's own answer was no: but, as in many of his dialogues, he never offered a definitive solution at all, and the closest that we actually got to an analysis of the concept of knowledge was given along precisely these lines). No one ever seriously believed that truth, or belief, or justification for such belief, would be enough to...

Many philosophers who specialise in religion are atheists. How can they speak about the fundamentals of a religion without believing in those fundamentals? Won't this inevitable lead to condescension?

Before I tackle your question head on, let me begin with an analogy: science. The number of philosophers who specialise in science is very small indeed. I'm not going to say that such people are non-existent: but, off-hand, I can't think of any. There are, however, quite a lot of philosophers who specialise in the philosophy of science. They ask very different questions from the scientists themselves, and they seek to answer them in very different ways. A scientist will seek to discover certain laws of nature that could explain how, as it might be, electrons cause certain observable effects to arise under certain conditions. But a philosopher of science will seek to analyse the very concept of a law of nature as such, or the nature of causation itself, or to describe what it actually means to explain something. Indeed, a philosopher of science might even question whether any amount of empirical data could ever justify us in regarding a scientist's claims about electrons as being literally true at...

Why is there such a rigid division between the Western Tradition of philosophy and Eastern philosophy? Early and Medieval Indian philosophy was just as rich, and varied, and deep as the Greek tradition. They addressed similar problems, often with slightly different trajectories of thought. And we now have justification to believe that there was cross-cultural intellectual "pollination" between the two. So when I read something from the Western canon that presents itself as novel, I stop and say to myself "Gee, I thought Dharmakirti said that a few hundred years ago." Sure, the Western philosopher may have done a more thorough exploration of the idea, but it's hard to resist the urge to go, "Duh!" One piece of advice that someone once gave me as encouragement to study philosophy was no matter how brilliant or novel or unique something I was thinking about seemed to me, someone else has probably already thought of it. So to rephrase my question, in an age where information and communication are global,...

First of all, let's distinguish two issues that seem to be interwoven in your question: what do/should historians of philosophy study, and what do/should actual working philosophers study? Taking the latter first, it is very true that Western philosophers tend to give little or no thought to folks like Nagarjuna. But there's nothing remarkable about that: they tend to give little or no thought to Plotinus either, or to Eriugena, or even to Descartes. Most working philosophers, although they might occasionally enjoy showing off a certain erudite awareness of the historical origins of their current debates, will rarely actually read and engage with works that are more than twenty years old. I suppose the idea is that newer works will preserve all that was good about earlier attempts at solutions to the problems in question, while also ironing out their flaws and generally pushing things forward. Giving "a more thorough exploration of the idea", as you put it. And maybe it would be a little naive to push...

Can poetry be used to express deeply philosophical ideas?

Poetry can certainly be used to express profound ideas and attitudes concerning (for want of a better expression) 'the human condition'. These ideas can affect the reader's soul in a powerful way, helped along by the captivating power of the medium itself. And examples of poetry that might be regarded as 'philosophical' in this sense are innumerable. Indeed, one might make a case for claiming that it's the norm rather than the exception, and that this is the primary aspiration of most of the greatest poetry in history, from Homer to Dante to Sylvia Plath. But does this really count as philosophy? For some people, this is precisely what the best and most important kind of philosophy consists in. For others, however, and particularly within English-speaking academia, philosophy is more a matter of highly technical and abstract theories about the structure of reality, the nature of cognition, and things of that sort. And yet, as it turns out, those kinds of theories have been explored in verse...

The "new" atheist thinkers such as Richard Dawkins tell us that we should dismiss religions and the belief in God, since they are based solely on faith and have no adequate objective evidence for them. If we would follow this line of thought into metaphysics and especially ontology then wouldn't it become also a question of faith. Since there's no objective scientific way to demonstrate any of the arguments about universals or the ultimate building blocks of reality. Is it right to bring this kind of reasoning over from one topic to another and if so does it invalidate something? And if ontology never claimed to be objective in the sense described why anybody even bothered to deal with it.

We need to distinguish between a posteriori and a priori arguments. Empirical sciences such as physics, chemistry and biology are predominantly supported by a posteriori evidence, grounded in experience. By contrast, the 'exact sciences' like mathematics are predominantly supported by a priori demonstration, grounded in the pure intuitions of the intellect alone. Mathematics cannot be based on experience, it might be said, because experience can only ever reveal contingent truths, whereas mathematical speculation gives us an insight into necessity. But both a priori and a posteriori knowledge can jointly be distinguished from faith, which for present purposes we might as well just define as any other basis for belief that cannot be fitted into either of these categories (e.g. the authority of a respected individual or of a text regarded as sacred, or a private inspiration supposedly delivered only to the elect). Now, there have been many philosophers and theologians over the...

In reading various relatively contemporary secondary literature on several different philosophers, I've noticed that many of them seem to intimate (or sometimes outright state) that the philosopher in question has been badly misunderstood, at least from a time shortly after their death, until relatively recently. Has the standards of scholarship really drastically improved in the last 20 or so years, or is this sort of claim perennial to the secondary literature on philosophy?

I think the standards of scholarship have improved over the last twenty years (or maybe the last forty or so -- it's been a gradual development). At least in the better work that is being done in the history of philosophy nowadays, there is a far higher level of rigour than one used to find. This has probably been a consequence of the expansion in the professional field during that period. With so many more academics working on these things than there used to be, all in (friendly) competition with one another, the somewhat woolly and slapdash approach that one can find in older works on the history of philosophy will nowadays lose out in the battle for publication. And the field has definitely benefitted as a result of this new rigour. But that's not necessarily to say that we understand historical philosophers better than they used to be understood. In the academic profession, there's a lot of pressure to come up with some new insight or original interpretation, to validate the publication of...